Oh - I only just noticed that Mino asked questions. They're not bad questions either.

A question rather general: whenever one of you disagrees with someone else, there is the last resort thing: "It's Revelation". Now, if God has written all the Bible, He did not write with his hands; I believe he used men to write it. Could these men have made mistake?
If not, when there are passages contraddicting each other in the Bible, and all the Bible is written by God, either God is incoherent or the incoherence has to be imputed to men: ho do you make sense of the incoherence?

I read somewhere that the need of interpreting the bible was born when distance in time starts got bigger.
It's here when you need Hermeneutics, which is really a "science" helping you building bridges between the Past and the Present.
What I think some of you fail to grasp is that the Judeo-Christian God is a historic God, a God living in history and that must act into history and that reveals himself fully as history goes on. If this God speaks to men (and women) He will speak to them according the historical development.
So it might be that what was not good before (like women fully partecipating to the spiritual life) is good now (maybe even women becoming priest).

I suppose I shall get a response together at the weekend, but as of this moment I can without reserve say a big "Pffffft." to the notion that in the olden days the bible didn't need to be interpreted.